I am betting on a-- sense =- smysl, but i will defer to the experts.
meantime, my moscow u grad student group appears to find few refs to
vygotsky in Belyaev and those from the early reflexological period.
for what it is worth
mike
On 4/26/07, David Kellogg <vaughndogblack@yahoo.com> wrote:
>
> Dear Anton:
>
> Thanks for offering your expertise. The main problem I have appears most
> clearly on p. 87 of the English edition, in Chapter Six, which is called
> "Intuition and the Feeling for Language from a Psychological Point of View".
>
> Belyayev says (in the Hingley translation):
>
> "It is usual to consider the word to be the lexical unit of language. A
> word always has some sense or meaning. A word has sense in so far as it
> expresses a concept present in one's consciousness at the moment when one
> uses this word. A word has a definite meaning, which is conditioned by the
> way in which the word can be related to the obejct which it denotes. When
> one pronounces some word in the course of speaking, one is never conscious
> of the appropriate concept, since that would require something in the nature
> of logical definition. Usually a person does not know this definition,
> lacking the time necessary to make it. All the same we always make a
> basically correct use of words. What is it then that takes place in one's
> mind when one uses words without recognizing their sense? A speaker also
> does not consciously realize the meaning of words which he uses in his
> speech. How can he correct use of words be possible in such a case? It is
> obvious that the person has
> semantic feeling."
>
> The question I have is simply a) or b):
>
> a) "sense" = "smysl" and "meaning" = "znachenie"
> b) "sense" = "znachenie" and "meaning" = "smysl"
>
> Thanks again! Long live the Russophones of XMCA, without whom we abject
> anglophones are at the mercy of any translator a publisher cares to
> employ...
>
> David Kellogg
> Seoul National University of Education
>
>
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Received on Thu Apr 26 19:56 PDT 2007
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