[xmca] B.V. Belyayev

From: David Kellogg <vaughndogblack who-is-at yahoo.com>
Date: Thu Apr 26 2007 - 16:16:46 PDT

Dear Anton:
  Thanks for offering your expertise. The main problem I have appears most clearly on p. 87 of the English edition, in Chapter Six, which is called "Intuition and the Feeling for Language from a Psychological Point of View".
  Belyayev says (in the Hingley translation):
  "It is usual to consider the word to be the lexical unit of language. A word always has some sense or meaning. A word has sense in so far as it expresses a concept present in one's consciousness at the moment when one uses this word. A word has a definite meaning, which is conditioned by the way in which the word can be related to the obejct which it denotes. When one pronounces some word in the course of speaking, one is never conscious of the appropriate concept, since that would require something in the nature of logical definition. Usually a person does not know this definition, lacking the time necessary to make it. All the same we always make a basically correct use of words. What is it then that takes place in one's mind when one uses words without recognizing their sense? A speaker also does not consciously realize the meaning of words which he uses in his speech. How can he correct use of words be possible in such a case? It is obvious that the person has
 semantic feeling."
  The question I have is simply a) or b):
  a) "sense" = "smysl" and "meaning" = "znachenie"
  b) "sense" = "znachenie" and "meaning" = "smysl"
  Thanks again! Long live the Russophones of XMCA, without whom we abject anglophones are at the mercy of any translator a publisher cares to employ...
  David Kellogg
  Seoul National University of Education

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Received on Thu Apr 26 17:17 PDT 2007

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