I noted the 'smiley' in:
I will certainly agree that artifacts do not have minds of their own,
but neither do humans! :-)
but I want to ask you to clarify the ambiguity of your comment. Do
humans not have minds, or are the minds they have not their own, or...?
Perhaps the problem is in the use of 'have' = possession. But wouldn't
it still be important to distinguish between the way in which mind is
attributed to humans and the way in which it might be attributed to
artifacts?
Gordon
Gordon Wells, gwells who-is-at oise.utoronto.ca
OISE/University of Toronto