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Re: [xmca] Culture & Rationality



Hi Martin,

I am thinking about what you wrote,

"On the contrary, it seems to me that much of LSV's writing can be read as pointing to the conclusion that *standards* of rationality will vary from one culture another. But I don't think he followed his own pointers, and, as I've said above, it is a pretty radical conclusion to come to."
I was first thinking about different standards of 
rationality as noted in the quote below, between 
formal and dialectical logic. Both are tied to 
"Western" countries, through dialectical thinking 
can also be tied to "Eastern" countries, so maybe 
the issue is one of "industrialized" countries?
"A child who has mastered the higher forms of 
thinking, a child who has mastered concepts, does 
not part with the more elementary forms of 
thinking. In quantitative terms, these more 
elementary forms continue to predominate in many 
domains of experience for a long time. As we 
noted earlier, even adults often fail to think in 
concepts. ? When applied to the domain of life 
experience, even the concepts of the adult and 
adolescent frequently fail to rise higher than 
the level of the pseudoconcept. They may possess 
all the features of the concepts from the 
perspective of formal logic, but from the 
perspective of dialectical logic they are nothing 
more than general representations, nothing more 
than complexes." (emphasis added, Vygotsky, 1987, 
p. 160)
But the issue in your quote has surfaced several 
times as well in my work with Indigenous students 
and scholars, and we have ended in the place 
noted in your quote above. Particular examples 
include the complexity and unity of some 
Indigenous cosmological systems, their symbolic 
representation through the medicine wheel, for 
example, and the narratives, signs, gestures, 
practices, writings that accompany these 
cosmological systems.
Can this be considered another cultural form of 
rationality (seems dialectical in a sense as well 
...)?
I know this is different from the question you 
posed in the follow up email, but isn't 
"demonstrably weaker" a matter of cultural, 
historical, political, economic positioning ... 
assessed by a particular dominant group at a 
particular time on the basis of their own 
potentially culturally irrelevant assessments?
Is part of your question also asking for a 
standard that exists outside of culture?
Just thoughts here ... jen





Hi Peter,

I am glad to see you join in the discussion, since I know you've done interesting research on inner speech.
I am certainly willing to grant that patterns of 
social interaction will become patterns of 
self-regulation and thereby parts of patterns of 
individual thinking. It also makes sense to me, 
and in my opinion LSV clearly states the view, 
that the higher psychological processes are 
cultural processes. I think he goes so far as to 
say that reasoning is cultural.
But, importantly, that is not the same as saying 
that reasoning *varies* across cultures. We 
*all* live in culture, and one can say that 
reasoning is cultural and still maintain that 
reasoning is universal. Are we willing to take 
another step, and suggest that in specific 
cultures the ways that people reason will be 
different, because the specific conventions of 
each culture are involved? That is a big step to 
take, because the rules of logic, to pick what 
is usually taken to be one component of 
reasoning, are usually considered to hold 
regardless of local conventions.
One way to take this step, of course, is to say 
that people in cultures reason in different ways 
but then to add an evaluative dimension. Those 
people in that culture reason differently from 
the way we do, but that is because their 
reasoning is less adequate than ours. They are 
more childlike, more primitive. *This* move has 
often been made, and I can find many passages in 
LSV's texts where he seems to be saying 
basically this. That's not a move I find 
interesting or appealing, and it's not what I am 
proposing.
On the contrary, it seems to me that much of 
LSV's writing can be read as pointing to the 
conclusion that *standards* of rationality will 
vary from one culture another. But I don't think 
he followed his own pointers, and, as I've said 
above, it is a pretty radical conclusion to come 
to.
Martin

On Jun 27, 2012, at 9:33 AM, Peter Feigenbaum wrote:

 Martin--

If you grant that interpersonal speech communication is essentially a cultural invention, and that private and inner speech--as derivatives of interpersonal speech communication--are also cultural inventions, then Vygotsky's assertions about inner speech as a tool that adults use voluntarily to conduct and direct such crucial psychological activities as analyzing, reflecting, conceptualizing, regulating, monitoring, simulating, rehearsing (actually, some of these activities were not specifically asserted by Vygotsky, but instead have been discovered in experiments with private speech) would imply that these "higher mental processes" are themselves cultural products. Even if the *contents* of inner speech thinking happen to bear no discernible cultural imprint, the process of production nonetheless does.
 Of course, you may not agree that 
interpersonal speech communication is a 
cultural invention. But if you do go along with 
the idea that every speech community follows 
(albeit implicitly) their own particular 
conventions or customs for: assigning specific 
speech sounds to specific meanings (i.e., 
inventing words); organizing words into 
sequences (i.e., inventing grammar--Chomsky's 
claims not withstanding); and sequencing 
utterances in conversation according to rules 
of appropriateness (i.e., inventing rules that 
regulate "what kinds of things to say, in what 
message forms, to what kinds of people, in what 
kinds of situations", according to the 
cross-cultural work of E. O. Frake), then 
reasoning based on the use of speech must be 
cultural as well.
 My guess is that you are looking for evidence 
that cultures reason differently. While there 
may be evidence for such a claim, I only want 
to point out that the tools for reasoning are 
themselves manufactured by human culture.
 Peter

 Peter Feigenbaum, Ph.D.
 Associate Director of Institutional Research
 Fordham University
 Thebaud Hall-202
 Bronx, NY 10458

 Phone: (718) 817-2243
 Fax: (718) 817-3203
 e-mail: pfeigenbaum@fordham.edu



 From:        Martin Packer <packer@duq.edu>
 To:        "eXtended Mind, Culture, Activity" <xmca@weber.ucsd.edu>
 Date:        06/26/2012 05:06 PM
 Subject:        [xmca] Culture & Rationality
 Sent by:        xmca-bounces@weber.ucsd.edu



Thank you for the suggestions that people have made about evidence that supports the claim that culture is constitutive of psychological functions. Keep sending them in, please! Now I want to introduce a new, but related, thread. A few days ago I gave Peter a hard time because he wrote that "higher mental processes are those specific to a culture, and thus those that embody cultural concepts so that they guide activity."
 I responded that I don't think that LSV ever 
wrote this - his view seems to me to have been 
that it is scientific concepts that make 
possible the higher psychological functions 
(through at time he seems to suggest the 
opposite).
 My questions now are these:

1. Am I wrong? Did LSV suggest that higher mental processes are specific to a culture and based on cultural concepts?
 2. If LSV didn't suggest this, who has? Not counting Peter!  :)

3. Do we have empirical evidence to support such a suggestion? It seems to me to boil down, or add up, to the claim that human rationality, human reasoning, varies culturally. (Except who knows what rationality is? - it turns out that the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy does not have an entry for Rationality; apparently they are still making up their minds.)
 that's all, folks

 Martin

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