I'm COMPLETELY lost here. My post had nothing to do with the word "reflect" or "mirror" or with any particular word. It didn't have very much to do with Kant, either.
I was trying to see to what extent the categories we find in Chapter Five of Thinking and Speech could be seen as coming directly from Hegel's Logic. That's all.
As I see it, the real target in Chapter Five and especially in Chapter Two is not Kant but Piaget. And as I see it, the real connection between Kant and Piaget is not the word "mirror" or the word "reflect" or even the word "schema" (though Kant DOES use all of these words). It's not any particular word at all, but rather an idea.
To make a short story long, the idea is this one:
"For we have there seen that conceptions are quite impossible, and utterly without signification, unless either to them, or at least to the elements of which they consist, an object be given; and that, consequently, they cannot possibly apply to objects as things in themselves without regard to the question whether and how these may be given to us; and, further, that the only manner in which objects can be given to us is by means of the modification of our sensibility; and, finally, that pure a priori conceptions, in addition to the function of the understanding in the category, must contain a priori formal conditions of sensibility (of the internal sense, namely), which again contain the general condition under which alone the category can be applied to any object. This formal and pure condition of sensibility, to which the conception oand f the understanding is restricted in its employment, we shall name the schema of the conception of the he
schunderstanding, and the procedure of the understanding with these schemata we shall call tematism of the pure understanding."
I don't think even Andy would argue that this was never expressed by Kant. Who but Kant can give us such a tenuous grasp of the obvious?
David Kellogg
Seoul National University of Education
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Received on Sat Oct 25 22:14:06 2008
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