I have been approaching this paradox from a rhetorical perspective, arguing
that looking ONLY at explicit, articulated discourse (and cognition) misses
most of the point. So far, my best "proof" is Godel's Theorem, but I haven't
come across any research that tackles this head-on, from a
cognitive/psycholinguistic angle. Is anyone out there an expert in this
area? I'd sure like some pointers to the "right" literature.
Dale Cyphert
dxc20 who-is-at psuvm.psu.edu
Department of Speech Communication, Penn State University