Re: question

From: Judith Diamondstone (diamonju@rci.rutgers.edu)
Date: Mon Jan 22 2001 - 00:13:42 PST


At 08:23 PM 1/21/01 -0800, you wrote:

>
>The very idea of a negotiating individual thus (1) presupposes a
>collectivity within which differences can be equally valued in some way, (2)
>a prime example of, a mass psychological phenomena..

I would readily agree that a negotiating individual presupposes an individual
in a culture in which negotiation means something, and I'm ready to accept
that that would be a culture with a market economy.

I would not agree that negotiation presupposes that differences can be
equally valued, and if that is the meaning you give to the term, I'm happy
to stick with "dialog" which doesn't connote equivalence of value in
anyone's book, to my knowledge.

And since I don't accept point A, I certainly don't accept its extension to
point B. :)

>In my opinion this isn't an adequate basis upon which to develop a
>theoretical framework for the study of the mind across peoples with
>different languages, customs, etc.

I would not claim to know the basis for a psychology that was not
culturally specific. What would be your basis, Paul?

Judy
>
>



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